age: Your framework up-thread FAILS from START to FINISH.
me: Please explain how it fails from start to finish.
(your list follows with my responses interspersed)
By the fact that you:
1. Could NOT legitimately provide an individual human being NOR body who could arbitrate over this.
To review: this...
A man belongs to himself.
A man's life, liberty, and property are his.
A man's life, liberty, or property are only forfeit, in part or whole, when he knowingly, willingly, without just cause, deprives another, in part or whole, of life, liberty, or property.
...is my framework. The only question with the first two items is: are they true? Does a man belong to himself? Are a man's life, liberty, and property his? I believe these are facts about man. My reasoning is in the first post of this thread...
viewtopic.php?p=452267#p452267
The third item does properly fall within the sphere of arbitration. Determining when a man has murdered or self-defended, when he's stolen or welched on a contract, etc. can and should be arbitrated. We have judges and juries for exactly that purpose.
2. Because you CONTRADICT your OWN made up framework through and by of your own continual behaviors.
Can you cite an example of where I violate the spirit or letter of the framework above? Or perhaps you're talkin' about people in general violating the framework. Please clarify.
And: the framework is not made up, not solely my construct. Bastiat and Locke, naming just two, said the same things. Hell, in this forum, I posted Bastiat's work The Law, wherein he makes his case for man's ownness and for the legitmacy of life, liberty, and property.
viewtopic.php?f=15&t=32456
3. Because EVERY one has their OWN definition of 'just cause'.
Indeed. Even though the third item, when unpacked, is unambiguous, there would still need for impartial and dispassionate arbitration (judges and juries).
4. Because one can NEVER fully KNOW whether another is doing something knowingly nor willingly.
Sure you can. Generally, you can ask someone and they'll tell you, in effect, I did so & so cuz I wanted to or I did so & so becuz I was forced to. Sometimes someone might say I don't know why I did so & so. Evidence, what was actually done and how, can help determine motive in such cases.
5.Because NO one ACTUALLY "owns" "property".
I provide a
product for my customers, meeting the mutually agreed upon requirements of our contract. They pay the agreed upon fee. I take that money and, for example, buy a car from the owner. The owner accepts my money and signs over ownership of the car to me. How am I not the owner of the car? How is the car not my property?
More basic: How can I not belong to me? I am my substance. The flesh, bone, brain, muscle, and the soul that animates that substance is me. How can I not be my first, best property?
6. And, because of the ABSURD notion that a human being has the "right" to forfeit or deprive another human being of life, liberty, or "property" just because they think that they have a "right" to.
But I don't have the right to deprive another of life, liberty, or property, (without just cause) and there's a consequence if I do. You need to read the framework again.
7. If this framework was followed or adhered to, then you ALL, in the days when this is being written, would have already been forfeited in part or in whole of your own life, liberty, AND "property".
No, if this framework were followed (each man recognizing that all other men belong to themselves in exactly the same way as he belongs to himself) then the world would be a better place.