Dontaskme wrote: ↑Thu Jun 09, 2022 6:14 am
It is in the Bible insofar as the meaning of the word itself is being ascribed to a deity known as God. It's does not have to appear as the 'word' in and of itself, but the idea of it is there for sure. The idea is implied very clearly.
It's not an idea that can be implied. It would have to be said. IOW it would need to say that God has the knowledge regardless of paradoxes. Free Will is implied also. Yes, one can interpret the Bible to mean that God knows everything, meaning the entire future. Or one can interpret to mean that God's knowledge so far beyond ours we use superlatives for it. The same with the other omni- traits. There is no reason to assume that a text that was often if not regularly expressive and poetic means that God is so powerful he can make a stone so heavy he can't lift it.
Iwannaplato wrote: ↑Wed Jun 08, 2022 10:48 am How would one talk about an entity that is so much more knowing.
The word Omnisicient is being ascribed to a Father by the offspring of the Father, as if the offspring is the voice of the Father.
The word omnicient is ascribed first in Latin by people with a quite different culture than the people who wrote the Bible. Maybe 1600s. At that point theologians were playing around with abstractions and logic in ways not used by the writers of the Bible.
But the idea of an ''All-Knowing'' deity called God would be totally incompatible with the idea of humans having free-will.
Yes, I understand your argument, that argument.
If God already knows every single thing before it happens then every human life form will be pre-designated. There cannot be human 'free-will' if every human life is playing out according to a script.
Does it say that in the Bible?