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Re: Can you get something out of nothing?
Posted: Thu May 31, 2018 2:40 am
by bahman
Philosophy Explorer wrote: ↑Tue May 29, 2018 2:33 pm
My answer is yes. When you multiply 0 by infinity, the answer is indeterminate. This means the answer may be 0 or 1 or 2 or infinity. You would need further information to specify the answer.
Since 0 is nothing, under ordinary circumstances, you would expect 0 as an answer. But with infinity, all bets are off. Do you find this acceptable?
PhilX
You cannot have anything out of noting given the definition of nothing, no thing.
Re: Can you get something out of nothing?
Posted: Thu May 31, 2018 5:28 pm
by Eodnhoj7
Skip wrote: ↑Thu May 31, 2018 2:39 am
Eodnhoj7 wrote: ↑Thu May 31, 2018 12:15 am
0 would be an observation of relation then considering it either observes absences or nothingness (which can only be observe through somethingness)?
It's not an observation; it's a representation. A symbol that can be made to stand for nothing in a particular relationship of things (
not for the concept of nothingness) or for the absence of a specified something, or as a modifier of other numbers. It cannot be observed, because it has no independent existence. No number, no letter, no icon, no symbol has any observable reality: they are all ciphers that may represent real things, or quantities of real things, or relationships between concepts (unreal things).
But all symbols mediate to something, otherwise no symbol can act as a representation.
Re: Can you get something out of nothing?
Posted: Thu May 31, 2018 9:41 pm
by Skip
What do you mean "mediate to"? Even actual mediators - brokers, agents, arbitrators, conveyors, diplomats - can only mediate between two parties, not from nowhere to somewhere.
Symbols represent whatever their users design them to stand in for. They're not required to act.
Re: Can you get something out of nothing?
Posted: Fri Jun 01, 2018 11:44 pm
by QuantumT
0 = 0
\___/
Re: Can you get something out of nothing?
Posted: Tue Jun 05, 2018 1:09 pm
by Justintruth
Philosophy Explorer wrote: ↑Tue May 29, 2018 2:33 pm
My answer is yes. When you multiply 0 by infinity, the answer is indeterminate. This means the answer may be 0 or 1 or 2 or infinity. You would need further information to specify the answer.
Since 0 is nothing, under ordinary circumstances, you would expect 0 as an answer. But with infinity, all bets are off. Do you find this acceptable?
PhilX
The limit of f(x) as x approaches infinity and f(x)=0*x is 0.
However, the integral of f(x) is defined as the limit of a sum of products. The number of terms in the sum approaches infinity as the terms themselves approach zero.
An elementary calculus text will help in answering questions like you are asking very precisely.
PhilX