Harbal wrote: ↑Sun May 28, 2023 8:43 pm
I would only use the word "evil" as an adjective, and completely interchangeable with the word "malicious". So, whatever the word "malicious" entails, the word "evil" would entail exactly the same.
But that still leaves both word without objective content. Both become just words people arbitrarily apply to situations they don't maybe happen to like, but which fall short of being objectively wrong, bad, malevolent, or even negative...since their only import is relative and subjective.
So there's still no such objective thing as whatever they are attempting to describe. There's just a petulant emotional outburst, entirely devoid of objective correspondence to any truth or reality.
I'm not familiar with Susan Neiman, but it seems ridiculous to think of natural events as being evil, malicious, or even bad. They could well be bad for human beings, but they are not capable of intending to be.
Yes, not everybody buys Neiman's distinction. But if we don't, then it means that there's nobody to blame for things like earthquakes and plagues, since they aren't really "evils," then.
So in the theodicy issue, God/universe is off the hook for all such phenomena, then.
But then, the whole theodicy problem starts to crumble, too: for if "malevolence" or "malice" is behind every "evil," then God is not responsible for evil -- man is.
Once again, the whole theodicy problem is on shaky ground, then.
Is malicious intent subjectively real?
Most people think "intent" is real. "Intent," however, is neutral. One can intend good or bad things, presumably.
So the real problem is that it's not clear what "malice" would entail, or that it would be objectively bad, given that the same people don't believe there's any objective reality to evil.
If so, then evil intent -being the same thing- is also subjectively real in exactly the same way.
So we still need an objective account of evil, or #1 has to be acceptable.
#1 (There is no such thing, objectively, as "evil." ) is perfectly acceptable to me. If you want to provide an objective account of evil, I will be more than willing to give you my opinion,which is all I can give you.
I'm just finding out if you're good with the four logical corollaries that follow from your belief. I'm not trying to advance my own view here; just to point out that
some objective view is absolutely unavoidable. What that might entail, we can so far leave to the future, since it doesn't become applicable unless we come to realize we're going to need
an objective view. There are several on offer, and we can test them all, if we want.
So the first real question is whether or not we're prepared to believe the whole package that comes with relativism on this point. Or do we see that without objective "evil," there's no theodicy problem.
Justice implies equality of some sort; a balance.
Yes: but a "balance" of what?
Some people think it's a "balance" between people. I don't think that's right. I think the more accurate implication would be that person X gets "just" what he or she deserves, no more and no less. So it's a balance between the individual, on the one side, and his/her deserving, on the other.
So "justice" for you, as a reasonable and decent person, might be a quiet life in peace; "justice" to somebody else might be that they have a more troubled life, because they've not chosen as well as you have; but "justice" to a serious criminal might be a life spent entirely in jail. The outcomes may be different, but "justice" is a universal quality, then. It just means, "getting
just what just what you earned."
IC wrote:Harbal wrote: People are only entitled to whatever is agreed upon between themselves and other human beings.
Not even that. For before we could say that, we'd have to know a principle like, "People shouldn't lie," or "People should render whatever they agree upon." And absent any prior, objective moral precept, we don't have that.
We have the concepts of lying and truthfulness, and of honouring what we agree to. We could never have developed such a complex and sophisticated level of social functioning without them. Our capacity for incorporating honesty and trustworthiness into our conduct is just part of our evolutionary inheritance. Many people, however, are not honest and trustworthy, so there cannot be an objective force or authority that compels such things.
In that case, they are just relations of convenience. Lying, truthfulness, and so forth are justifiable only so long as, and inasmuch as, they serve a person or a group; after that, they are entirely dispensible, because there's no objective reality to their rightness or wrongness...assuming "evil" is relative, of course.
I would have to know how a person defines "evil" before I could offer an opinion on whether he has a right to expect a life without it.
That won't be enough, we would have to realize. The fact that I "expect" something that I have "defined" in a particular way is not even one step closer to proving that I actually have an objective right to have it. I might "expect" a Ferrari, and know full well what the definition of "Ferrari" is, down to the last bolt -- that doesn't mean anybody owes me a Ferrari.
The same applies to the phrase, "a life without evil in it." I might have a very precise definition of that, but even if I did, what would assure me that I have a right to expect it?
Rights are what human beings grant to each other, and I do not believe there is any other source of rights. Does that make my view clear?
Yes, however, since all "human beings" are no more morally dignified than any others, being all nothing more than late products of the accidental creatorial powers of the indifferent universe, they can't "give" me anything objective. I only get to keep my rights so long as they continue to surrender them to me; and when they stop, I have no basis of complaint.
That's social relativism. It has all the same problems as personal relativism, but on a social rather than a personal scale. In both cases, "right" refers to nothing objectively real. And if my "society" takes away or denies my "right," then there's no sense in which I can rationally complain they've done me an injustice. My "right" came only from them; when they took it away, there was nothing left for me to appeal to. I couldn't say to anybody, "Hey, you're violating my rights!" because the rights stopped existing when my society took them from me.
Can we live with that? Would we want to?
But we're still faced with conclusions 1-4, it would seem. They all follow logically and necessarily from the belief that evil is "just a concept," not an objective reality.
And if that is the case, what are we to make of it?
Well, the obvious, I think: that without an objective "evil" existing, there's no way to accuse God or the universe of having treated any of us "unfairly" or "unjustly." The universe, or God, did no "evil" to us when it/He did not give us the happiness or peace we were wanting. And the old argument, "If there were a God, he would not allow evil" simply falls apart by way of its own incoherence. We don't believe in objective evil, so we don't believe there's a theodicy question.
But as a moral objectivist, I would actually turn around now, and side with those people who pose the question. I don't think their question is idle or wrong-headed. But it is, on the terms they offer, if they don't believe in objective evil. So they'll have to decide whether they want to abandon their commitment to "evil" being purely relative, or whether they want to stop crabbing about God/universe doing them dirt. Because they can't say evil is illusory, and then indict anybody for condoning evil. That simply fails to make a lick of sense.
That's where I was going with that.