sthitapragya wrote:Ethics and morals are subjective. For the conservative muslim, marrying little girls is not a problem. He believes in God. He has morals and ethics which are objective and God given. So he closes his mind to the possibilities of subjective morals and ethics. He will simply do what God permits. He won't use his own mind.
I agree: it seems clear to me that most Muslims I meet do not know their own religion, let alone their own god. They don't read the Koran at all, and they are afraid they will be "unsubmissive" if they question it; instead, they seem to just believe their "authorities." And it's true that some people from all religions and ideologies do that. You can't imagine how many Atheists I've met who've read nothing at all, or just bits of Dawkins or Hitchens, and think they know something.
That's all silly, of course. But that's not the way it has to be. A person can be knowledgeable about his beliefs if he (or she) wants to be. It just takes effort.
All that being said, that doesn't suggest anything about morals or ethics. After all, a person can believe false things ignorantly, or true things ignorantly. The truth or falsehood of the ethic is one thing; the amount of knowledge or ignorance in the person who believes it is entirely another.
More importantly, it does not lend any credence to the claim "ethics and morals are subjective." Rather, it implies, people of varying degrees of knowledge and commitment have different views of ethics.
Hardly surprising, really.
sthitapragya wrote:I am bound to follow the law as the consequences of not following them can be severe. I might disagree with the law but unless I can change it, common sense dictates that I follow it.
But the embezzlers I spoke of last message, the ones involved in the US mortgage scandal knew they could get away with it. So fear of the law was nothing to them. The law is not morality; at most, it's an imperfect reflection of it, and one that often lets justice slide by. How do we know? Because there is a real, objective thing called "justice for the victims of the mortgage scandal," and that real value has not been honoured in that instance. That's how we know the law has failed there.
Whether that's a "right" or "good" situation is the concern of ethics, not law. Law is
ex post facto to ethics: we make laws
because we believe the values they stand to defend are already right...not because laws
create "rightness."
Now I am confused. Are we arguing while agreeing on the same thing.
Partly. We're agreeing that people
differ in regard to their ethics. But the conclusion we are drawing from that fact is different. My conclusion is, "therefore some people have wrong ethics," because I believe in moral objectives. Your conclusion is something like, "therefore ethics are not objective."
The difference is that IF my premises are true, then my conclusion would logically follow from them. But even IF we grant your premises, your conclusion is a
non-sequitur: it does not follow by rules of logic. That is, your position seems to take for granted that if people disagree about something, that counts as evidence that there simply is no answer.
Now, in regard to other questions, you'd see the logical error you're making immediately -- for example, would it be reasonable to say that just because people have sometimes thought the earth was flat, and others thought it was the curved back of a giant turtle, and other people have thought it's a sphere suspended in space, that there is no answer?
Obviously not: and I suppose you can rightly point out that that's because the earth is
objectively something. And you would say that the difference is that morals are not. However, that is not to be granted: for the question we're discussing is whether or not morals and ethics are an actual,
objective something, or just human fictions. However, logically speaking, to acknowledge that "people have different ethics" adds nothing informative of that point.
And that is why...
Let me clarify. I am of the opinion that morals and ethics are subjective. Every one has his own, some of which may be common with a lot of people. These morals and ethics are different depending upon the environment and culture you are raised in because different cultures have different standards of conduct.
...adds no useful information either. It's just logically a non-sequitur with the conclusion you advance, which reads...
These morals and ethics are defined more by environment, culture and the prevailing law of the area. You would add morals dictated by God and I would disagree because a lot of people who believe in God do not follow the morals and ethics dictated by their God.
...for there is no logical connection from your earlier statements to those conclusions. That people disobey their God does not tell us whether or not that God, and His morality, exist or not. It's simply a different issue. Only if we thought that the God in question was somehow obliged to
compel all people to obey him would it matter. But many religions, and certainly the majority of Christians, do not believe God does that, or that He is obliged to. They recognize that human will is not coextensive with Divine will: just because God says it's "right" does not mean that free agents, human beings, are forced to do the right thing.
Immanuel Can wrote:Most people in the field of Moral Philosophy now disagree with you. The dominant view is that, after having looked around the multi-cultural, multi-ideological world we live in, different moralities exist that are "incommensurable." Feel free to check me on that, if you wish. You'll find I'm telling you the truth about that.
Now I am really confused. That has been my contention all along. My only addition has been that belief in God has very little to do with the morals and ethics people follow.
Actually, it does. But I should be clearer.
We are not asking, "Can people BE moral," as in "Can an Atheist BEHAVE well?" For the answer to that question is simple: yes. An Atheist, or anyone else, can choose to be good or evil, or a combination of each. That admission is trivial and uncontroversial for all sides. What we really need to ask is, "When an Atheist behaves well or badly, is there any justification in his Atheism for recognizing a moral difference?"
In other words, given that an Atheist cannot logically justify his belief in anything but
subjective morals, is there anything more important than his private opinion in his contention that he is being "a
good person"? Do we owe it to him to agree he's good? Or does he even really
know he's "good," since feelings are notoriously deceptive, and he has no objective criteria by which he could decide whether or not he's deceiving himself?
Immanuel Can wrote:Well, how do you explain Hitler calling the gas chamber good?
He will definitely come up with some explanation which appears rational to him even though you disagree with it. It is subjective. But it might not necessarily be true.
Everything is "true" if the "truth" about something is subjective. Which is to say, there is simply no such thing as a moral "truth" if morality is subjective. Ironically, that means exactly the same as "all morality is false"; for if there is nothing that is NOT moral, then the term moral itself has no particular referent at all. It's not a word like "globe" or "horse," which refer to specific objects; It's all an illusion -- goodness, badness, morality, immorality, rightness, wrongness, and so on. Moral language refers to nothing at all, in that case.
They are true for me. That is all.
That doesn't add up. For how does something that is only "true for one person" even rise to the level of "true"? Isn't, by definition, a "delusion" a thing which
only one person believes? In fact, that's the best test for a delusion: if I see a pink elephant at the party, and yet nobody else sees it, then I have my best indicator I'm having a hallucination, not a "subjective truth."
So if I say, "I'm a good man," and there's no moral objectivity by which my claim can be judged, and other people think differently, how can I know I'm right? How can I know if THEY'RE actually right? I can't. I'll never know. The statement itself is then meaningless. I may as well have said, "I'm a
xzygl man." it would have meant just as much, in real terms.
Fortunately, we needn't imagine that there are no moral objectivities, or we'd all be in that situation, and the whole field of Ethics would rationally have to be banished. But we do all want to say, "I'm a good man," at least in some sense. For that claim to have any content, objective standards have to be conceded to exist.