Obvious Leo wrote:IC. You have yet to explain how something which is known to be physically impossible can logically be claimed as a historical fact. Kindly address this question.
Gladly.
Your words "physically impossible" are a logical fallacy there. It is illogical to deduce that something is "impossible" merely because of the existence of certain observable physical regularities in the present: the ancients agree that such regularities exist -- hence they spoke of a "miracle," not a "regular event." All you can deduce from the claim of a miracle is that something extraordinary is being claimed -- not that it did not happen. For were the means of the irregularity not supernatural and singular, it would not constitute a "miracle" at all. You have to judge the claim of a "miracle," not merely the claim of an "impossibility."
Hence, a claim about a "miraculous" event can only be adjudicated on whether or not it *did* happen -- whether it *could not* cannot be decided in advance without...
a) the mistake of thinking natural "laws" are somehow metaphysically binding, which completely misunderstands the metaphor "law" when used in the phrase "natural law," as if we were speaking of something like human laws, which have some kind of obligatory force; natural "laws" mean only "regularities", and
b) the erroneous presumption that no supernatural means for such a thing exist, i.e. that God does not exist.
Now, this thing b) is the very thing which, by definition of the case, is under dispute, cannot satisfactorily be settled unilaterally, by supposition. One is not justified in using the expression "is known," because that's not "known" at all: it's the matter in question. And certainly, if God does exist, and if, as Christians believe, He has creatorial power, then there would be nothing "impossible" in Him raising the dead.
The matter of His existence must be settled first: then the question of the miraculous can be addressed: but if He exists, then the miraculous is no logical problem at all.
Consequently, whether the miracle *did* or *did not* happen can only be settled on the historical data. And this I have outlined briefly already, and referred to the associated literature. If you read it, you'll see the case and be able to decide for yourself.
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But all this is, for the moment a different point from the one made by the original poster. The clear point is that his alleged disproof contains such an obvious flaw that even a dedicated Atheist (provided he knows anything about logic) should detect it immediately, and say, "Listen, chum: we can do better than that."
I was simply astonished that they did not do so. It has to make us all marvel that critics of Christianity are so easily impressed with such transparently bad reasoning. Could it be that they are not bothering to exercise their critical faculties at all, in regard to their own worldview? That's a conclusion hard to resist, given the present case.